
jrice
Jun 19, 2003, 7:35 PM
Post #11 of 33
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I'm not sure I'd agree with all of that hypothesis, if only because the whole Mexican situation seems outside the framework you mention. Mexico has had a much stronger, and explicit, socialist tradition in latter two-thirds of the 20th century than did the United States. It had governments that announced they were promulgating "socialist" education, for example. Cardenas -- the most revered president of that century -- tossed the American oil companies out of the country and was a staunch supporter of Fidel Castro in his later years. At the same time, during the late 1930s, you had a widespread radical right -- by some estimates 1 million pro-Nazi, pro-church (a sort of Francoish blend) sinarchistas. The governments of the 1940s and 1950s were more conservative, but they repeatedly had to use very brutal methods to crush very expansive, widely popular labor unrest backed by socialists (and I don't mean even FDR-style Democrats. I mean real, honest-to-Stalin dictatorship of the proletariat socialists in many cases). In 1968 (and again a few years later), you had vast student protests (even a young Zedillo was peripherally involved) that were crushed by literally murderous government thugs -- a wound that remains bitter and very current today. The government kidnapped, tortured and murdered hundreds of leftists -- and the Fox administration has named a special prosecutor to investigate that. Many Mexican families are indeed strong, values-teaching places. But the institution of bigamy is not rare and is commonly referred to in popular culture. The Mexican family is not an easy thing to generalize about. There are elements of great strength alongside a "casa chica" system that is large enough to be a subject of popular culture.
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